Racist?
SPOILERS FOLLOW: Don't read if you haven't seen the film.
I just watched this film for the very first time, and thought it was curious that it was stressed that a black cop was killed, in the case that drives the plot.
Now, that fact plays into the plot when it is noted that since the "colored" vote is quite influential in this town, the authorities up for re-election want to secure that vote by punishing the killer of a black man. However---historically speaking, cop-killers were already particularly reviled by the general public. If the script had merely specified that the authorities wanted to appear tough on crime, and punish the murderer of a member of the police force, it would have served the plot just as well.
Well, in the final reel we see that the murder is NOT executed. And so I couldn't help but wonder.... Would the movie-going public of 1940 have taken exception to the fact that the cop-killer got off scot-free in the end if the policeman had been white? Did the fact that the cop was black somehow make it more palatable to the viewers, many of whom surely viewed black people as being less important than Caucasians back in those extremely racist times? (Okay, America is STILL very racist, but let's face it---things were MUCH worse back in 1940.)