NOT Victorian!


Sorry, I must vent. So if you do not wish to hear my ranting, please don't read this.


Why must everyone go around calling this movie "Victorian"? It is set in the Regency period, which is *before* the Victorian period. This movie is set around 1815, and a few years beyond, which is more than 20 years before then! Please people, get your dates straight! I am thirteen and I know the difference. You can't even compare the two periods. They had completely different values and rules. They didn't even wear the same clothing.

I'm very sorry if I've offended anyone, but it really annoys me.

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Could someone list all the royal dynasties of England since Medieval? I am really curious.

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Normans (1066-1154)
Angevins (1154-1216)
Plantagenets (1216-1399)
Lancastrians (1399-1461)
Yorkists (1461-1485)
Tudors (1485-1603)
Stuarts (1603-1649, monarchy abolished in 1649 and restored in 1660, Stuarts retake the throne from 1660-1714)
Hanoverians (1714-1901)
Saxe-Coburg-Gotha (1901-1910)
Windsors (1910-present)

I've got a clan of gingerbread, men here a men, there a men
Lots of gingerbread, men

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(sigh) the values of the Regency and Victorian periods were quite antithetical. The Prince Regent himself was an incredibly decadent/sensuous wastrel of a dude, and this period is noted for its Romanticism--a celebration of emotion/sensibility over reason, of self-indulgence over duty. Consider Nelson's affair with That Hamilton Woman (great movie-check it out, with Laurence Olivier). Byron, anyone? Lady Caroline Lamb and her transparent dresses, her flagrant and celebrated infidelity? Think of it as the antidote to the 18th century's age of enlightenment.

Victoria ushered in a completely different, and much more sober world, familiar to us from Dickens and others......

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since everyone is discussing history I thought I should bring up another issue: if the story stars in 1815 then 20 years later would be 1835 and Zollverein would already exist, but does that really mean that there was a "Germany"? I think they -the german confederation - were still very much under the influence of the Austrian Empire and didn't really have a State with a government, etc.
it's not the first time I've seen it happen. It was the same thing with "The Brothers Grimm".

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I've never read such an interesting (and intellectual?) discussion on a movie. It was refreshing. Must say I liked the 'Victorian or not?' discussion and the costume reference was enlightening, good to know people are not just being passive viewers.

while discussing or reviewing a movie which is based on a book, comparisons with the book are inevitable. Didn't find much here though. Wondering if that's coz we want, for a change, to look at the movie not like someone's offspring but an individual in itself.

One good thing about such movies is I often go back to the book it is based on. And evtime that happens, I realise my understanding of it has changed and grown.

Thanks ppl for an interesting discussion.

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Just to clarify- in making the first post, I never meant to appear snobbish or to call anyone stupid or ignorant, and I tried to make sure that I did not offend anyone by it. Anyway, that being said, I am quite enjoying this discussion :D

It was mostly a costuming thing--I love Regency and Victorian is completely different. I think it particularly fascinating that generally costumers call certain periods of clothing different from what a historian might call tham :D In my mind, the 19th centurygoes like this: Late Georgian, Regency, Romantic, Victorian/Dickens, Hoop/elliptical transition, Early bustle, Natural Form, Late Bustle, Belle Epoch, Gibson Girl.

On the subject of whether the movie was good as an individual entity and not as an adaptation, I hought it was very entertaining visually. Plot wise, it was dull, and I don't think it carried itself well. However, the jewel toned costumes were absolutely gorgeous to look at, though terribly inaccurate and Bollywood-ized. Also, I thought the music was beautiful.

Now, in comparison to the book, it was not good at all I think. It completely lacked the satarical bite fo the book and Becky was far too "Oh please audience, like me because I'm the main character." rather than the devious, cunning creature she is in the book.

Anyway, I still enjoy the movie a lot. I watch it for the visuals, not the action itself. If I wanted a movie with better rounded characters and a better plot, I will watch P&P or S&S.

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I guess the costuming and attitudes of the royal family and upper class might have been different, but I don't think they define the culture of a country, at least not as much as has been conveyed by many of these posts. Granted, the subject of the film is this same upper class, so this is only natural.

The political context -- i.e., English world pre-eminence, was more or less the same between the two periods. As a side note, I think people did refer to "Germany", even if such a political entity didn't exist. It referred to "where they speak German," much as people did speak of Italy though that area was similarly unconsolidated.

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You understand the word "Victorian" to strictly. The term is quite broad, and it's generally used in history and literature with reference to the 19th and early 20th centuries, not only Queen Victoria’s reign.

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The girl is right, the Regency period is a totally seperate entity and is never used interchangably with Victorian. The values are far too different.

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Beginning in 1901, the Victorian era began morphing into the Edwardian period, and mores and culture started to loosen dramatically. Victoriana was all full of awful overstuffed and appointed home furnishings; homes became cluttered and velvet and lace shrouded everything in the house. Even piano legs were covered lest they incite the flames of young men's lustful hearts. I kid you not.

In contrast, Prince Edward was a dandy and men soon started emulating his dress and manner. Women, most of whom adored Queen Alexandra, began dressing as she did - bustles be damned! Things began to lighten up and loosen up as stodgy, button-down, repressed sexuality was replaced in favor of a more cosmopolitan flair during the Edwardian period. Everyone loved Queen Alexandra, but were willing to turn a quick blind eye to King Edward's fancy women. And. . . at last, piano legs could again be viewed openly. Unfortunately Edward's reign and influence lasted only for a short time (he was King less than 10 years); shortly afterward, Europe began to devolve into martial fever as World War I loomed.

The war, which brought about monumental changes in the social structure and progressive movements (such as "the vote" for women) reverberated around the world. The groundswell of changes brought about by jettisoning Victorian customs, embracing the excesses of the Edwardian society, a sad, sagging economy, and the social upheaval caused by the Great War were unimaginable at the end of the 19th century.

Some movies are released; others sneak out.

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Ok just me going slightly off topic, but i was just curious. As in England, looking back on historical periods we name them after the monarch(s) of the time for example The Georgian, Tudor times etc.

But for those of you in the USA what do you use as names for 'era's' so-to-speak? Do you use the names of Presidents? or would you just say 19th century etc?

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In America, we name our periods after centuries on the larger scale (18th, 19th, etc.) and on the smaller scale, after wars or major political/ sociological events (The Revolutionary Period, The Civil War, Reconstruction, WWI, The Great Depression, WWII, the Cold War etc.) More recently we've started using Presidents as benchmarks ("The Clinton Years, the Reagan Years") but that's usually reserved for more recent events, historically speaking. But you're right, it's not as simple as the monarch periods in the UK; though I know that for smaller time periods, the English also will use wars or political movements to describe a period (e.g. the Enlightenment or the Restoration.)

Glad to see that most of you out there know that Queen Victoria did not reign for over 100 years. That would be quite a feat! Great discussion.

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Leelee, your vent IS quite nitpicky, but since your first post was intelligent and marked with profuse apology, I can hardly try to make a comeback. I didn't know about the difference and was very interested. Are you British? I ask this b/c you seem to know a lot about British history and I'm rather dismayed that I've never even touched in the subject in school or out. If you learned all this outside of school, wow, rock on. I do really enjoy the subject but I've never really delved into it. After all, there are so many interesting things to do and learn (right now I'm teaching myself Spanish) but what with our normal school load (bleagh...) to do it all would be outrageous whether it's interesting or not. Actually, take that back, I once read up on the Angevins b/c i was writing a story set in that time period, but that was quite brief.

I'm in 9th grade right now and we have no 9th grade history class at my high school (SUCKS!), so i can't wait for World History next year.

"I drank what?!?"

-Socrates

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I wish more 13 year olds were like you, leelee. Kudos! =)

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If "willthrills" truly had a degree --in ANYTHING!-- he or she would value higher education far too much to tell so advanced a youth, as the original poster, to go "play with [her] barbie dolls".

I simply do not buy this joker's claim of a degree in "British Literature". Not.At.All.


"hesperus59" YOU must understand that many modern references merely describe how a term, or pharse, has come to be commonly used... And, many people --like yourself-- blithely accept this record of current usage... but, that DOES NOT make the usage correct!

I have studied much history, and much literature, and I can assure you that such distinctions ARE made between Georgian, Regency, Victorian, etc...!


More 13 year olds should hope to be so intelligent and mature as the original poster.

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The House of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha and the House of Windsors, are in fact the same house. King George V changed the German sounding name in light of The Great War (WWI). Not so good to have a German name and be ruling a country that is fighting the Germans, eh?

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I don't want to sound snotty or to rub who I am into anyone's faces but I would like to establish a basis of creditability, I am a Regency Historian and have been so for nearly six years. While I will admit to not having read the book Vanity Fair, I know a little about it. It was originally published in 1847-1848 in 19 parts, the last part being a double of part 19 and 20.

The book was written about the Regency era as the Victorian era was still very new and the ending part took place some 20 years later.

As for what people wore during the Regency, the empire dresses began in France, where they adopted the look of the old Grecian statues and spread throughout the world. (I'm American and yes American's also wore the same type of dress.) The dress was also greatly influenced by India, scarves, turbans, shawls and slippers were all taken after Indian styles. In England especially they wore bright colors (red being the most popular).

The original poster of this let out some frustration that I also feel from time to time, she wasn't being nit-picky, she excused herself and let the readers know that she was about to rant, giving everyone who has posted on this board a chance to hit the back button. I don't think she was being rude at all. And I agree with the general populace that the person who stated they have a degree in British Literature obviously knows nothing about history.

Finally, to all Americans who have posted on this with rude and rash comments saying that they had never heard of the Regency era and that therefore they have some right to be naive enough to call it "Victorian", I would be so embarrassed to be you. Rather than acting civil and thanking the original poster for enlightening you, you have chosen to make yourself appear more ignorant.

(Also, American's also know this time period as Regency as well- at least those who know their history do.)

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Well said Pink Weeds, I think the original poster had every right to air her
quibbles and in my opinion, her complaints were not at all unreasonable.

I think the distinction that should be made is that we are dealing with two
different texts here: the novel and its film adaptation. While the novel is unquestionably a Victorian novel, in both form and context, the historical period examined is Regency and thus, when summaries of the film is made, individuals should cite the film as Regency and not Victorian. To label the film as Victorian is very misleading as the social modes and historical paradigms of the Regency period were very different from the Victorian, not too mention vastly different in terms of fashion and technology.

(I hope I don't sound too pedantic, and while I am sometimes irritated when people fail to make distinctions between historical periods, I do want to say, however, that the idea of someone labeling Vanity Fair as Victorian to me is far more palatable than say, someone labeling Pride and Prejudice as Victorian (I've heard and read this description far too often) (Ugh!) :)

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For a 13 year old to pay attention to these things is good -- something I haven't acknowledged.

However, the book I read, by eminent historian Peter Gay, is called Schnitzler's Century: The Making of Middle-Class Culture 1815-1914; he describes it as a history of the Victorian era, though it is clearly going through the regency.

This is like saying it would be wrong to call an event in 1855 or 1870 "Civil War Era" -- if you do a strict periodization, it would be wrong, but in terms of general timeline, social ethos, etc., it's fine.


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It is quiet apparent from even just a basic look at the clothes worn that it is set in the regency period and not the victorian era. It is quite amuseing how every period british film is always declared to be victorian.

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Quite!

When it was announced that Shirley MacLaine would join the cast of Downton Abbey as Cora’s American mother, MacLaine said she was so excited, she couldn’t wait to be fitted for her bustle.

Bustle? It was the 1920s.

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Well, yes, 1870 would technically be reconstruction. 1877-1900 or so would be post reconstruction. 1850 would be Pre-Civil war.

The clothes the wealthy and fashionable classes from the regency and victorian eras might be discernably different to a student of fashion, but I don't think the clothes of the man or woman on the street changed a whole lot (though I'm not a student of fashion, maybe I'm wrong; the regency clothes don't jump out at me).

Again, this is like saying "early nineties, late nineties" versus just nineties versus late twentieth century. Someone who knew clothes well might be able to say Nixon vs. Ford vs. Carter administrations in the 70's, but it's not wrong to say 70's, or even "late civil rights era."

Like I said, this guy, who not only has a Ph.D. in history, but sells thousands, if not millions, of books writing about it, calls the whole period (1815-1914) the victorian century, even though I'm sure he's aware of Victoria's accession date.

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Men's clothes didn't change a great deal from Regency to Victorian, but women's certainly did. In the Regency period, the dresses were a general straight tube shape and were light and allowed movement and mobility. The Victorian dresses were the large bell skirts that took up several feet of space, or in the very late Victorian period, the large bustles on the back of the skirt which gave women an S shape; and generally made of heavier fabrics. Another major change in women's clothes was the undergarments--during the Regency, many women wore a much simpler corset, which only covered the bust, the only other undergarment they wore besides that was a shift/slip and stockings; Victorian women wore a tight-laced corset covering them from bust to hip, several petticoats, a hoop-skirt or bustle, pantaloons, stockings, etc. The Victorian woman was hampered by as much as 30 pounds of clothing (a complete outfit today, including shoes, generally weighs no more than about 2 pounds), in addition to the corset which cut off her air..is it any wonder Victorian women were given to fainting?

Under capitalism, man exploits man. Under communism, it's just the opposite.

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This is really interesting. Are there any online photos showing the progression of these fashions?

"I think I'll try defying gravity..."

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Try here for Regency fashions: http://hal.ucr.edu/~cathy/reg5.html. And here for Victorian: http://locutus.ucr.edu/~cathy/weev.html

Under capitalism, man exploits man. Under communism, it's just the opposite.

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I don't know who Schnitzler is, but Peter Gay seems to have defined his "century" by two wars, from the end of the Napoleonic to the start of WW1. As others have pointed out on this thread, historians often use wars, monarchies, or momentous societal events to delimit historical periods, even when the margins aren't really that neat. Calling that whole period "Victorian" is really stretching the common understanding a bit far; 1815-1914 includes the later Regency years, the lengthy Victorian era (1837-1901), which itself is often divided up into early, middle and late, and the Edwardian era, and a few years beyond that. I'm surprised that any historian would treat the term "Victorian" so loosely.

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Could we please put poor old Arthur Schnitzler to rest?

In “Schnitzler's Century: The Making of Middle-class Culture, 1815-1914,” its author, Peter Gay, posits that, rather than “that corseted Queen Victoria” the person who provides a better “symbol for the age” is the “sexually emboldened Viennese playwright, Arthur Schnitzler.”

This is not revisionist history, but revisionist interpretation of history. It may be useful in penetrating the development of bourgeois mores during the 19th century. It is of no use in determining the accurate labelling of epochs. If that were Peter Grey’s intent, he surely would have picked someone who lived more in the 19th century. Arthur Schnitzler lived from 1862 - 1931.

As others have already pointed out, The Regency was only a brief, but pivotal period within the era when the House of Hanover reigned in Great Britain. The Regency lasted for the nine years that the son of King George III acted as his father’s Regent – from the time George III went mad until his death in 1820 – at which time the Regent became King George IV and reigned until his death in 1830.

Following George IV’s death, his brother William IV was king until his death in 1837.

Victoria reigned in Great Britain, from 1837 until her death in 1901. This is what can rightly be termed the Victorian Age, although people were still called Victorian (usually pejoratively) for many years after.

While the Edwardian Era, during the reign of Victoria’s son, only lasted from 1901 to 1911, many historians extend the Edwardian Age to the sinking of the S.S. Titanic, or the beginning of WWI, which more forcefully delineates when a change took place in most social and political trends.

In using the time span “1815 to 1914" in his title, Peter Gay was not referring to Victoria’s eighty-two years, any more than he did to Arthur Schnitzler’s seventy-three years. He was referring to the century between the epoch marking Battle of Waterloo and the commencement of the First World War.

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I'm an American, I know/knew nothing about the Regency and I thank the OP for educating me, a 58 yo man! I am however currently "reading" Vanity Fair (in audiobook format) and thoroughly enjoying it! I'm also enjoying this discussion.

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The Regency period only lasted for 9 years though, from 1811 to 1820. So there are parts of this movie that aren't Regency.

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Its interesting that Vanity Fair and Pride and Prejudice are both based in the regency period in England, yet they both have such extremely different portrayals of fashion.

The first lines of Vanity Fair do not state an actual year - it merely says 'while the present century was in its early years...' or something to that effect. The Napoleonic wars feature in the book, and that war went on from 1803 - 1815. This means that the book could be based any time between those dates. Lets assume that Vanity Fair is based before 1810. Pride and Prejudice was first published in 1813, and i like to think it was based around that date too. So...we can assume that fashion may have moved from the huge wigs, powdered faces and wide hip hoop dresses of the Revolutionary late 18th century years, to the look portrayed on Vanity Fair in the very early 19th century, to the Regency/late Georgian era portrayed in Pride and Prejudice.

What say all of you?

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George dies fighting at the battle of Waterloo, which took place in 1815. So the latter end of the film when Steyne is wooing Becky, is set in the early-mid 1820s, when the Regency fashions had become more ornate and frilly. Pride and Prejudice was published in 1813, but is takes place slightly earlier, between 1811-1812.

Under capitalism, man exploits man. Under communism, it's just the opposite.

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