Solozzo paying Tattaglia from his share = they earn more than Corleone's?
It might not be that important but it got me intrigued. Why would he answer the question like that? Corleone's would get 30% so 70% would remain from the split. Would he want to pay Tattaglia's 40% and get 30% for himself?
Or was it simply a rebuttal of sorts to Vito being nosey in what was none of his business?