I'm open to discussions of implied homosexuality in older films. It is certainly true there were a fair number of such cases. (And in the Pre-Code era, it was sometimes really pretty blatant.)
In this case, however, I find your reasoning to be problematic / flawed because it is entirely circular. You assume that your thesis is true as a major step in trying to prove that it is true. Purely as a matter of symbolic logic, that is not valid.
1) His "cotton frock" story masking the real reason for his wife's suicide: an unconsummated and loveless marriage
Nothing in the movie says this. Nothing even implies it, as far as I can recall. The only thing that
would indicate what you are claiming would be if you already assume that Sir William is gay. Deciding that the suicide story is a lie would be a
consequence of concluding that he is gay. Yet you are using that consequence as your first (primary) piece of evidence that he is gay in the first place. I'm sorry, but that doesn't fly as a valid line of reasoning. If you can point me at something that I missed which would independently imply / prove that the real story behind the suicide was as you say, then I'll reconsider.
As for the other points (taken on their own, without the circular reasoning about the suicide), ......
As others have pointed out, being a widower still not over mourning his dead wife works just as well as a reason to hire a companion for social gatherings where it is expected that you come as a couple. And since that is all that she is, being "meek" has nothing to do with not wanting to get in the way when she does fall for someone.
So, in sum, I would say that it is
possible that Sir William is gay, but that saying that it is "strongly implied" is overstating things by a fair bit. I tend to lean in the direction of Sir William
not being gay because he really does seem to have a mourning-the-love-of-his-life attitude when talking about his wife, and I don't think that Sir William is that good of an actor (Laughton is; Sir William is not).
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