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How come Pablo Escobar and others do not 'tutear' in Spanish?


I just noticed a scene where Pablo is talking with her in the third person "Ud" form despite the fact that they are very intimate. I've also noticed Pena do the same.

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Colombians from that part of Colombia usually use Usted and also vos instead of tú.

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no one in colombia really does that unless is family, Men never do it, its weird.

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It is also common in the Venezuelan Andes the respectful treatment of Usted (a derivation of Vuestra Merced = Your Grace) even between boys at each other at the school, high schoolers, university students, young friends, between husband and wife, mother and son and viceversa, father and son and viceversa, etc.

It's amazing to Spaniards to hear a school teacher to address her pupils as "Ustedes".



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It is curious that for us "Ustedes" sounds informal, whereas "vosotros" sounds formal and actually in Spain it is all the way around.

Maybe be because paradoxically our American Spanish in general is older and archaic in comparison to the Spanish spoken Spain.

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Maybe be because paradoxically our American Spanish in general is older and archaic in comparison to the Spanish spoken Spain.


How is American Spanish older when the Spanish language was born in Spain?

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Sorry, mine was a misleading statement.

Of course the Spanish language was born in Spain and for that reason it's older there.

I should have said, that the Spanish language we speak nowadays in America is older and archaic in comparison to that spoken in Spain, because it has evolutioned faster in Spain than in America or has evolutioned in a different way.

We, in America, IMO and of other people's opinion, tend to keep an older form of Spanish.

Here is a link in Spanish. A bit long though:

http://hispanoteca.org/Kulturkunde-Spanien/Kulturkunde-LA/El%20espa%C3%B1ol%20americano.htm

and:

http://www.historiadechiloe.bligoo.cl/listado-de-palabras-del-castellano-arcaico-todavia-en-uso-en-chiloe-0#.V_I3Vfl95D8

"perdurando hasta nuestro días innumerables palabras del castellano arcaico, en diferentes lugares de américa que mantienen la influencia hispánica y que incluso en la misma península, ya se encuentran extintos."

"lasting until our days many words of archaic Castilian, in different places in America that maintain Spanish influence and even on the same peninsula, are already extinct."

This, I learned in my first incursions on the Internet on the 90's and surprised me a lot.



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In many parts of Latin America Spanish remained in a relative isolation so it didn't evolve the way that the pure castellano did in Spain. For example, the use of ustedes as an informal second person plural pronoun or the use of vos in many parts of LA are archaisms. They existed in Spain too but were replaced by vosotros and tú. Places like Lima and México D.F. have probably the Spanish that most resembles that of Spain in Latin America because they were major capitals for Spanish virreinatos (viceroyalties).

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How is American Spanish older when the Spanish language was born in Spain?


Not going to add to what the posters above said, but this isn't only so with Spanish. For example Icelandic is much closer to Old Norse, which developed in Norway, than Norwegian is. I've also read many times that some American English accents are technically closer to Old English than most British accents, but I don't know more about that so can't be sure. There are thousands of Latin-based words in English these days so obviously the language has diverged very far from its Germanic roots.


Do you even know what honor is?
- A horse.

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This can happen sometimes with language although I'm not saying that's the case here.

In the mother country, a language can continue to evolve in ways that the language, if isolated in an area does not. In these cases, sometimes, you might find the 'children' speakers use archaic forms that are no longer in use in the mother region.

Icelandic is a great example.

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