MovieChat Forums > A Dangerous Method (2011) Discussion > Why would the Jews refer to Jung as 'Ary...

Why would the Jews refer to Jung as 'Aryan'?


Wasn't this a term coined (or at least re-invented) by the Nazis?

The Jews should have referred to Jung as a Gentile or Christian.

At one point Freud refers to him as a Protestant. Even this seemed unusual.

I'm guessing the use of "Aryan" is supposed to be an ominous Third Reich foreshadowing - - as if there weren't enough of them in the film already. (Ex. Jung's dreams; the Wagner discussions)

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Aryans are South Asian people, such as Indians & Iranians.

The Shah of Iran (father of the last one)got excited about the idea of the Germans being Aryan like himself & tried to join the Axis. The British & Soviets stopped him. There was a streak of insanity in the Pahlavi family.

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Right. So it would make no sense for Jews in the early 1900's to use that word to describe a Gentile.

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Jung's dreams do not count as a foreshadowing of World War II. The film ends in the early 1910's, so a reasonable inference could be that his dreams were a foreshadowing of World War I.

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No. Nazis did not invent the term "Aryan" to denote blond blue eyed Germans. It had been around for a long time before them.

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Yes, the Nazis wasn't the ones responsible to invent the word nor shift the meaning of the word to denote blond blue eyed Germans, though they used it in that fashion prominently.

According to my understanding, prior to the late 19th century, the word Aryan was used to describe Indo-Iranian and/or Indo-European people. In the late 1800s, there was a spread of notions about the "Aryan race" in Germany that it refers to a pure breed of white blond blue eyed Nordic people. This had probably begun around the time Nietzsche was still active writing his books. By the early 1900s, I'm guessing most people in Germanic nations were already familiar with the phrase "Aryan" or "Aryan race", which they identified as full blooded Nordic descents. Even the Jews who lived there should have been familiar with this, just as both white and black people in the US agree about the definition and usage of the term African-American.

So, in response to OP, it does make sense that Jung was called Aryan in the film.

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This usage was common among knowledgeable authors writing in the late 19th and early 20th century, so yes it was very appropriate that Freud used the term IMO.

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Arthur de Gobineau (1816-1882) used the term "Aryan" to describe the "Nordic race" in the 1850s. Also, American writer Charles Morris even published a book called "The Aryan Race" in 1888. The term was certainly commonly used in the early 20th century. Also, Freud was specifically comparing Sabina's fascination with Jung to her fascination with Wagner's Siegfried, the quintessential "Aryan" hero.

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At the time in which this film takes place, the term Aryan had been corrupted to the point of meaning anyone who was basically white European, though more so a northern white European. And, also at the time, Jews were thought of as a separate, non white (in the corrupted Aryan sense) race.

The altered racialist meaning to the word came well before the Nazis, though the Nazis corrupted the term even further.

Also, and as mentioned by others, Jung's dream was more a foreshadowing of WWI than WWII.


Time wounds all heels.

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I understood it to refer to the Wagner Operas - where a great Ayran hero strides in and saves the day/girl. Basically he was gently mocking Jung's supposed vision of himself.

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