MovieChat Forums > Anonymous (2011) Discussion > The Authorship Question..

The Authorship Question..


Did 'Shakespeare' really write the works of William Shakespeare? The evidence seems to be stacking against him after all? We have the evidence of his illiteracy, the fact that no-one seemed to have associated the Stratford man with the plays in his lifetime, the lack of original manuscripts, the strange references in the first folio, the.....

Stop right there!

Before you go on, answer one question. What actually is your theory? Conspiracy theorists love to stack up factoid after factoid but never to do they stop to examine whether it actually forms into a coherent theory?

So before we continue, what do you believe? Do you believe that no-one associated the Stratford man with the works associated with 'William Shakespeare' until long after his death? Good. Now get rid of the 'Poet-Ape' as evidence. Get rid of what you think are insulting references to an ignorant ape from Stratford apeing his betters (as some have claimed 'William' in As You Like It). Because you can't on the one hand claim that no-one associated him with the works and on the other claim that people were attacking him for claiming to have written the works.

Do you believe that 'Shakespeare of Stratford' was being used as a front for someone who wanted to remain Anonymous? Good. Now get rid of the evidence you were using to prove that he wasn't associated with the works. Get rid of the variant spellings you were using. Get rid of the supposed lack of association between the Stratford man and the works. Because you can't on the one hand claim that someone had to use the Stratford man as a front and then on the other hand claim that no-one associated the Stratford man with the works.

And don't claim on the one hand that the works were so dangerous that someone could only issue them through a front man and the on the other hand claim that the front man chosen was such an illiterate oaf that no-one believed he could write plays.

And please, for the love of God, don't claim you have a theory that is so wonderful it explains it all and then say that it is only available in a manuscript costing £19.99 from all good book shops.

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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[deleted]

Actually, there is no actual evidence for any one but William Shakespeare.

The so-called "evidence" for the others is mostly inaccurate lies, plus a little bit of unremarkable coincidences.

What is your evicence that Shakespeare of Stratford was a "broker" or a "merchant." Are you referring to the fact that he at one point made an investment in grain, like many of his neigbors?

Why do you think the playwright needed intricate knowledge to set his plays in a varitey of places - especially when all the characters are basic English types?


If you think you have ANY actual hard evidence for anyone but William Shakespeare of Stratfor on Avon, please present it. If your evidence is actual evidence, rather than lies or unremarkable coincidences, you'll be the first to give any acutal evicence for anyone but Shakespeare.

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Why do you think the playwright needed intricate knowledge to set his plays in a varitey of places - especially when all the characters are basic English types?


- and when, notoriously, he showed very little local knowledge in the various foreign settings, or even any intention of making them convincing to the audience?

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[deleted]

There is no circumstantial evidence for alternate authorship. You do not know what circumstantial evidence is.

There is also no evidence that Shakespeare was a grain trader. There are dozens of reports of people visiting his monument - and writing the inscription, which is also on Dugdale's sketch, which is inconsistent with the whole grain trading lie.

You are aware that Dugdale was working from someone else's sketch, right? And that it contains multiple inaccuracies? And that the sketch he worked for shows the paper in his hand, the hand curled for a pen, and the tufted cushion it currently has? Dugdale tipped it up for a better view.

Now, if there was any other evidence at all of grain trading, you might ignore the other descriptions of the monument, the inscription, the initial sketch, and the like. But there is none.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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[deleted]

There are these things called travelogues that were written in books sold in St. Paul's. A rich man like William Shakespeare (that's his name by the way not Shakspere) could easily buy them. Also, the plays themselves are for the most part are not original. Their plots and sometimes lines come from preexisting stories and plays. So knowledge displayed in these stories can stem from the authors being copied from. Case in point, the whole description of Cleopatra's barge lifted straight from Plutarch into Antony and Cleopatra. So who's the genius behind this passage Shakespeare or Plutarch?

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[deleted]

1. William Shakspere of Stratford
2. Edward De Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford
3. Christopher Marlow
4. The works are from multiple authors

On behalf of Giovanni Florio, Francis Bacon, Henry Neville, the Countess of Pembroke, Sheik Zubyar bin William, the Earl of Rutland, William Herbert, Emilie Lanier and literally dozens of others, I must protest. Almost all of them are better candidates than Marlowe or Oxenford, since they lived long enough to write planned five act plays to (different from Elizabethan) Jacobean tastes - including a dramatic genre that did not exist in Oxenford or Marlowe's life. Oxenford and Marlowe could not have written The Tempest or Winter's Tale, just as Richie Valens could not have written White Rabbit.

Shakespeare expert Jonathan Bate found this site to be "marvelous". Even though it makes us blush:

http://oxfraud.com/BC-Marlowe

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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I at this point have four options.

1. William Shakspere of Stratford
2. Edward De Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford
3. Christopher Marlow
4. The works are from multiple authors
You have more like 80 options. Oxford's claim is no better than average and a great deal worse than than the likes of Henry Neville, Francis Bacon, The Earl of Derby, The Countess of Pembroke or John Florio. All of these people lived long enough to have written the work and are therefore, at least, possibles. Oxford died in 1604, 10 years too early.

Suppose we start with an even more basic question.

Why do you think that you can dismiss the results hundreds of years of scholarship by tens of thousands of people better read and better qualified than you are, replacing their conclusions with a half baked-poorly researched alternative of your own devising?

And no evidence, whatsoever, exists for any alternative candidate.

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Why do you think that you can dismiss the results hundreds of years of scholarship by tens of thousands of people better read and better qualified than you are, replacing their conclusions with a half baked-poorly researched alternative of your own devising?


When you frame your question without including an ad hominem, I'll consider answering it. Until then, I'll frame my opinion of you based on the inclusion of such.

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You don't understand what 'ad hominem' means.
Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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When you know how well read I am, you can criticize how well read I am. When you know what my arguments are, you can tell me my arguments are half-baked. Until then, when you disparage these things, I assume you are doing nothing more than attacking my character.

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We've seen your arguments. So far the amount to

1) Sometimes there is a dispute over the authorship of certain works
2) Shakespeare's name was inconsently spelt
3) you personally don't like his character

None of this is original, all of it has been debunked (on these very boards). If you have any other arguments, please present them.

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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I haven't made any arguments and I haven't come to any conclusions. And I sure wouldn't rely on the arguments of the amateurs on this board.

One thing I have learned from coming on this board is you Stratfordians are in a real panic. That is the only explanation for your rude, arrogant, angry behavior.

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Now that's an ad hominem

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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A well deserved ad hominem.

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It is standard issue Oxenfraudian mendacity.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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Another stupid "argument" is that English professors, book publishers, acting companies, etc stand to gain by perpetuating the myth that the person who wrote the plays wrote the plays.

The only people who stand to gain by that perpetuation are those who make money from Stratford tourism. Think about it (try): a scholar who could prove Shax didn't write Shax would stand to gain enormously, both professionally and economically. It would be the greatest discovery in the history of English scholarship. A book publisher would make millions from the duplication of that proof.

That's why your "arguments" are so weak--it's as if you've spotted Christ in your hair clippings and want people to pray about it. But you enjoy it, and we obviously do, too. I think we like it bc there's so little we know of Shax's life--iterating his existence makes him real, somehow.

If someone proved that a squirrel wrote the works attributed to Shakespeare, I would devote this energy to wondering at the miracle of that squirrel's existence, too.

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And all you have done so far is come on this board and wonder why your outstanding revelation that there were variant spelling of Shakespeare's name having been met with the levels of awe and respect that you think they deserve.

And then denied making any arguments while nevertheless complaining that the arguments you deny making are not being treated with any respect.

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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If you are well-read, it speaks far worse for you than if you had never read a word.

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No, the "vast knowledge" is widely disputed. The conspiracy theorists who believe someone else wrote the plays continually claim there is "vast knowledge," but I don't see it. What local reference there are could have come from source material, or from an Italian known by the playwright (e.g., possibly John Florio). Why do you anti-Strats all believe it is impossible to learn anything except by personal experience?

In any event, if you are going to claim the plays show vast knowledge, you must first prove the plays actually show vast knowledge. Then you have to show that the only way to have obtained the knowledge is from personal experience.

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[deleted]

You haven't established that there was any intricate knowledge.

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[deleted]

I've seen more than enough feeble arguments on your side. As I said in an earlier post, they are mostly lies and unremarkable coincidences.

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As I said in the opening post - if you have a wonderful theory or evidence, post it here instead.

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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No: it's you who haven't learned the basics of online (or any other) debate, which state that it you make the assertion it is up to you to back it up with evidence, or everyone else is entitled to conclude that you don't have any. You can't dodge the issue by telling everyone who calls you on it to 'Go away and research until you admit you're wrong.'

And I for one genuinely don't believe you have any evidence. You may have read or watched something somewhere that convinced you at the time, but I suspect that if you actually remembered any of it coherently you'd repeat it.

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[deleted]

You evidently haven't done the initial research nor learned the arguments of those who present alternative authorship solutions.
Bzzzzz! Oh, I'm terribly sorry, your answer is wrong. Thanks for playing. You can pick up your parting gift on the way out.

You ain't the first clown out of the car here.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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[deleted]

There is no evidence to support any other author than William Shakespeare. When that changes there will be "valid reasons". And not until then.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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[deleted]

When you produce some actual evidence?

And I mean actually produce it, not just link to a website

So far all we've had is the old chestnut about the spelling of his surname - and a poem which probably doesn't even refer to Shakespeare.

Ever tried. Ever failed. No Matter. Try again. Fail again. Fail better

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When you have actual evidence.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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Le sigh. Why would Shakespeare's hoarding grain to his advantage, skipping out on his property taxes (which you didn't mention, so you're welcome), being smart, ambitious, connected, rich, and a good reader count AGAINST him in the world's greatest genius category? Such stupid arguments.

Hint: Shax wasn't a Romantic poet.

And who gives a *beep* what Supreme Court justices say--especially this court? They know as much about the English Renaissance as you do.

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You mean, knowledge like Milan being a seaport, and the Mediterranean having tides, and Bohemia having a sea coast, and Illyrian noble ladies having uncles with names like 'Sir Toby Belch'?

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Or Venice without mentioning either being rowed through the canals or crossing all those the bloody bridges to get anywhere (just came back from Venice).

The only original plots were tempest and merry wives...

Funny that they do not think he was a timetraveller since most his plays take place in the past...

EDIT TO ADD: HomerParrish has deleted his posts in this thread

I'm not crazy, I'm just not your kind of sane
He who laughs last, didn't understand the joke

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I do not believe shakespeare wrote the plays, but I also disagree the plays show vast knowledge of the areas in which they were set. However, many of the plays (as I'm sure stratfordians are well aware) are adaptations of stories that had not yet been translated into english. The idea is that the playwright would have needed to know italian, dutch, etc. How well does shakespeare fare in this regard?

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What, specifically, are you claiming was not translated into English? Dutch is new to me, and would seem to rule out every known candidate.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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Many of the plays......are adaptations of stories that had not been translated into English


Actually not all that many; maybe half a dozen or so.

The idea is that the playwright would have needed to know Italian, Dutch etc


Which is actually a thoroughly silly idea. None of the plays derived from an untranslated source follows the source material closely at all. The bare plot outline, plus (sometimes) some character names, is all. Unlike, say, Henry V, in which it's quite certain that the author must have had a copy of Holinshed as so much is transcribed almost verbatim, all that would have needed is for the author to take a friend who did read the language to an alehouse, buy him a pint, and say 'I need a plot, something fashionably continental. Tell me a story from that guy Belleforest's book'.

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That is definitely plausible. The same could be said regarding the "vast knowledge" of foreign places: a free pint for a sailor, which London had aplenty. However - and this is purely speculative, but follow me none the less - a writer who references another famous writer in one of his sonnets (76), would take a more literary approach to gathering content.

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I take your point, but I don't think it necessarily follows. (Also, I don't buy that the 'compounds strange' bit necessarily references Chambers in particular, as opposed to current literary fashion in general. Maybe, maybe not.)

In his poems, Shakespeare - all right, the author, to avoid any possible arguments - is not only writing in the first person but very consciously presenting himself as The Poet; and the sonnets may be addressed to the beloved, but also to the discerning literary public. There's no reason to suppose he necessarily took the same attitude to his playwriting, where he had to appeal to the lowest common denominator of the audience, stick in extra scenes, business and characters to play to the strengths of the company and the hot topics of the day, and so on. Indeed, it's hard to see how any writer could.

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T
W
A = Thomas Watson
T
S
O
And

It's not a perfect acrostic, but when you consider "and" is usually unstressed and pronounced as "-n-", as in "salt -n- pepper".....it's pretty frigging close. A glance at some of Thomas Watson's work shows it's not light reading.

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It's not a perfect acrostic, but when you consider "and" is usually unstressed and pronounced as "-n-"


Wait - are you saying Shakespeare could not come up with a word starting with N for that line? Took the time to make the acrostic then got to the end and said, screw it, close enough? I didn't even have to rhyme, just scan! That is the laziest derogation of creative responsibility outside of when Rogers and Hammerstein punted on "La".

Maybe he was making a dirty joke, and the O was happenstance. Though apophenia remains the best explanation.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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Feeble argument.

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Your inability to come up with a response hardly makes the argument feeble.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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But close, as we all know, is no cigar. I'd remain to be convinced even if it read TWATSON - the odds of that sequence cropping up randomly are just not that great. But an acrostic that isn't an acrostic at all without some substitution belongs in the same box as a ley line that doesn't actually touch all its claimed marker points: as Swift might have said, they are things which are not. Especially, dear God, in the work of the acknowledged greatest wordsmith in the English language. I don't believe the author of the canon would have inserted a lame not-quite acrostic any more than he would have published a sonnet where you had to elide a foot in the seventh line to make it sort-of scan. Even if he had to rewrite half the sequence!

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Another feeble, automatic contradiction when considering the content of sonnet 76, and the knowledge that thomas watson experimented with new styles in his writing, the 18 line sonnet....he did not follow tradition.

No one is denying Shakespeare's prowess as a wordsmith. He invented words. He was extremely creative in his wordplay. The incomplete acrostic could be another example of such. I can't say it definitely is just as you can't say it isn't. And yet you do. Interesting.

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Another feeble, automatic contradiction when considering the content of sonnet 76, and the knowledge that thomas watson experimented with new styles in his writing, the 18 line sonnet....he did not follow tradition.



None of which in any way implies that Shakespeare was thinking of Watson specifically, or that he would have put an acrostic in the sonnet even if he was.

- If the initial sequence had read, say, ALASTHOMASWATSON, that would be radically less likely to be pure chance.

- If other sonnets' initial sequences contained such as (say) OMASTERBENJONSON, or EARLEOFOXENFORD, it would be far more likely that the initial sequence of #76 was also acrostic.

- If there were any evidence that in his time, or in his own idiolect, and was routinely elided to -n- as it often is today, your contention that the author would use A as a stand-in for N might be tenable. But there isn't. In the canon many short words are routinely elided - e.g. in becomes i', of becomes o' - but we never get ‘nymphs ‘n’ shepherds’ or anything like it. So your argument in this respect does not hold water.

- If the canon contained a single manifestly acrostic poem, it would increase the probability that he had included acrostics elsewhere in his work. But (in an age when the acrostic poem was very much a la mode), it doesn't.

What you don't seem to grasp is that the mere assertion that the sequence TWATSON is a not-very-good acrostic on a fellow poet is worthless. It's not up to me or anyone else to disprove it; it up to you to prove it, or at the very least to show some powerful reasons for believing it.

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....why you believe....

Condescension aside, those 3 words are really what we're working with, are they not?

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I really don't understand your point. Syntinen and I have argued that if the writer had wanted to do an acrostic in the sonnet, it would have been trivially easy to do one that fills the whole 14 lines, not just a random selection of lines (and not even a perfect acrostic at that). What actually is your argument against this?
PC SJW AND PROUD OF IT

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Well, you may be working with belief, but I'm working with probability.

Even in a 157-sonnet sequence, the probability of all 14 of the initial letters of any sonnet forming a perfect word, name or phrase by chance are fairly low. Therefore, if one does, and said sequence can reasonably be construed as in some way relevant to the subject matter, the likelihood that this is an intentional acrostic is pretty high. OK?

However, the probability of a sequence of only 13 of the initial letters of any sonnet forming a perfect word, name or phrase by chance is a multiple of that. And every time you drop the bar by a letter, the probability is multiplied again. So if you will accept a sequence of only 7 letters that can be construed as in any way relevant to the subject matter, the probability that you will get one appearing by pure chance in at least one of the sonnets is very high indeed.

And if you’re going to 'play a joker’ by not even requiring a sequence to form a word or name but hypothesising that any one letter can substitute for the letter you need it to be in order for the sequence to make a word or name, it’s a virtual certainty that you will find one; therefore, the existence of such a sequence is in itself just not meaningful at all.

So, if you want anyone to believe that the occurrence, in a sonnet about the author’s difficulty in refreshing his verse style, of a sequence of 7 letters not-quite-spelling the name of a contemporary experimental poet is anything but a not-quite-coincidence, you will have to bring some supporting evidence. And you will also have to explain away any evidence to the contrary: such as the fact that the acrostic poem in the Renaissance invariably comprised all the initial letters in a sonnet or stanza, not just some of them; so a sequence such as this wouldn’t have rated as an acrostic at all.

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118 seconds work.
----------------------
Is my verse, then so barren of new pride?
And far from variation or quick change?
Might I with the time just glance aside
To new-found methods and to compounds strange?
Oh Why write still all one, ever the same,
Mighty invention kept in noted weed,
When every word doth almost tell my name,
And Show their birth and where they did proceed?
To, know, sweet love, I always write of you,
So you and love are still my argument;
Or all my best is dressing old words new,
Now spending thus what is already spent:
   For as the sun is daily new and old,
   So is my love still telling what is told.

I = I AM TOM WATSON.
A
M
T
O
M
W
A
T
S
O
N

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to be fair we do have the 'Cs Us And Ts' dirty joke in Measure For Measure

PC SJW AND PROUD OF IT

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'It's not a perfect acrostic'

You ain't whistling Dixie there.

The actual acrostic would be WSWTWATSOASSFS - which while giving Beavis and Butthead a potential laugh doesn't mean much. Why does the acrostic begin on the third line which is meaningless in Sonnet terms? Why not take the opportunity to do a full acrostic such as BYMETHOMWATSON?
PC SJW AND PROUD OF IT

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Furthermore, I take your point on the differences in the poems versus the plays - different mode of outlet, need, etc. Anti-strats, I believe look more to the sonnets than the plays regarding the authorship due to their being of a more personal nature rather than business.

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There is no reason to think they were particularly "personal" as opposed to business. Sonnets were written to please patrons. There is no reason to think they were autobiographical like anti-Strats argue. Or more accurately, no reason to think they were roman a clef. No patron was going to pay to read about the writer.

The idea that poems were written for self-expression, and not with an eye towards the bottom line, is redolent of a relationship between poets and their works that did not exist until 100 years later.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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Very feeble. And kind of ignorant.

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You seem to be fond of the word "feeble" as if was an argument.

If you cannot support your contentions with argument you'd best not make them.

Datta, dayadhvam, damyata.

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I actually know, for a fact, that Shackspear was an alias invented by Elizabeth de Vere, Countess of Oxford and lover of Elizabeth I.
The clue, that the author was a woman, is in the name - She lacks a spear becomes Sh'ackspear or, as it has been commonly corrupted to, Shakespeare. And the fact that there is so much evidence linking the plays to the Earl is clearly due to the fact that he was involved in the conspiracy. Her relationship with the Queen was crucial to this, with her direct and indirect patronage and the 'education' during their love-making sessions.

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Sorry, you have to try harder for your 'wackiest ever Shakespeare authorship theory' award

PC SJW AND PROUD OF IT

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Yup. We've had the pro's in here. People who have rewritten the whole of Elizabethan history with only two biros, a box of crayons and a dial-up internet connection.

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[deleted]

Shakespeare, and only Shakespeare, wrote the works of William Shakespeare. There is no credible evidence to show otherwise. It is all just another idiotic conspiracy theory. Grow the fuck up.

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