Why didn't Harry use a deathly hallow?
Harry had one of the deathly hallows, the cloak of invisibility. So why he didn't use it in battles?
shareHarry had one of the deathly hallows, the cloak of invisibility. So why he didn't use it in battles?
shareHe used all three.
“Seventy-seven courses and a regicide, never a wedding like it!
I meant while dueling Voldemort, or fighting that snake?
shareBecuase Harry is a different kind of wizard, that has been mentioned in a few of the movies. Harry I think did not need those to beat old Voldy, he did it with the help of his friends, not items.
shareHe had no time to put it on when he fought the snake. It was attacking him. He couldn't just say, "Time out! Let me get my cloak on!".
When he dueled Voldemort he needed Voldemort to focus on him. If he's invisible Voldemort can't target him and goes after others instead. He knew if Voldemort used the curse it wouldn't work, so he didn't need the cloak.
In the DH book, he actually used it twice that I recall while attacking others. The first was at the diner when he hit one of the DEs while under his cloak. The second time was when he was at the Ministry and , while under the cloak (as Runcorn) Harry attacked both Umbridge and Yaxley. During the Gringotts break-in, while wearing the cloak, he confunded the guards and then imperiused the goblin Bogrod and DE Travers.
Bob
In the DH book, he actually used it twice that I recall while attacking others. The first was at the diner when he hit one of the DEs while under his cloak. The second time was when he was at the Ministry and , while under the cloak (as Runcorn) Harry attacked both Umbridge and Yaxley. During the Gringotts break-in, while wearing the cloak, he confunded the guards and then imperiused the goblin Bogrod and DE Travers.
So when two death Eaters are trying to kill Ron and Hermione and kidnap him to take to Voldemort, it's immature to defend himself? Really? He should have let them kill his best friends and take him to be killed because he was under the cloak?
I didn't realize self defense was irresponsible.
I didn't realize self defense was irresponsible.
In the DH book, he actually used it twice that I recall while attacking others... Harry attacked both Umbridge and Yaxley. During the Gringotts break-in, while wearing the cloak, he confunded the guards and then imperiused the goblin Bogrod and DE Travers.
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"Attacking others" is a misuse of the Invisibility Cloak.
Because he attacked them in self defense. Umbridge and Yaxley were sending innocent muggle borns to Azkaban, and worse. He was defending Mary Cattermole and every other muggle born they were interrogating.
Severe embarrassment and possible imprisonment was the result of Harry using his cloak and wand on Ministry of Magic staff.
Because he attacked them in self defense. Umbridge and Yaxley were sending innocent muggle borns to Azkaban, and worse.
Embarrassment and imprisonment? If Harry gets caught, he gets killed.By whom? Voldemort? Harry volunteered for that, so no big deal.
If Ron and Hermione are caught helping him, they and their families are killed.
Maybe you missed the fact that Voldemort had the entire Ministry looking for Harry so he could kill him.
They freed half a dozen muggle borns who had been captured. Including Mary Cattermome who was about to get the Dementors kiss. So yes, it was self defense.
By whom? Voldemort? Harry volunteered for that, so no big deal.
Where do you see an example of the death penalty and execution being sentenced in the Magical Government of Harry Potter world? Buckbeak?
They freed half a dozen muggle borns who had been captured. Including Mary Cattermome who was about to get the Dementors kiss. So yes, it was self defense.
Self-defense (self-defence in many varieties of English) is a countermeasure that involves defending the health and well-being of oneself from harm
Wrong. Voldemort wanted Harry dead whether Harry went after his Horcruxes or not. It had nothing to do with a choice by Harry.
I'm not talking about the government or a death penalty.
I'm talking about Voldemort and the fact that he killed people for helping Harry and much less.
Hermione was going to be eaten alive by Greyback just for being an ally of Harry.Eaten or bitten? And was that perhaps because he was a hungry werewolf rather than a political execution?
The entire Weasley family had to go into hiding because Ron was caught with Harry.And this is "the death penalty" in what way?
You didn't notice that Harry volunteered to surrender himself to Voldemort? That Slytherin House wanted to turn him in earlier and were locked up for it? That Harry's other friends were horrified when he volunteered to walk to the Forbidden Forest as instructed? How only Hermione seemed to understand, she being the only one wise enough to know Harry had a horcrux within him?
So, I guess you missed that part?
Eaten or bitten? And was that perhaps because he was a hungry werewolf rather than a political execution?
I don't think you can. Even Harry's mother was killed accidentally by jumping into the path of the spell intended for Harry.
How does that have anything to do with what I've said.
Bellatrix says they can dispose of Hermione.
Voldemort did not accidentally kill Lily Potter.
"Even Harry's mother was killed accidentally by jumping into the path of the spell intended for Harry."
She was killed because Voldy fired the spell at her. She did not jump in front of a spell intended for her son.
Bob
"Even Harry's mother was killed accidentally by jumping into the path of the spell intended for Harry."
She was killed because Voldy fired the spell at her. She did not jump in front of a spell intended for her son.
No, she didn't. In neither the book or the movie.
He went there intending to give her a chance to live. After he got there he decided to kill her too when she wouldn't get out of his way.
He went there intending to give her a chance to live.
In the book, Lily was standing in front of the crib and begging Voldy to kill her, not her son. Voldy gave her two chances to move. When she didn't, he killed her. She never moved. The movie has Voldy aiming straight at her.
Bob
What an idiotic post. You should delete it.
share""Attacking others" is a misuse of the Invisibility Cloak."
So says you. His use of the cloak while attacking others was justified. It may not have been completely necessary at the Ministry as he was already under the polyjuice potion, but it still was a surprise attack that even had he not been wearing the cloak, it likely would still have ended the same way.
In the Gringotts break-in, he had to use the cloak so no one could see him or Griphook. Had he not confunded the guards, they would have been discovered. Also, with the goblin, Hermione and Ron likely would have been detained had Harry not imperiused him.
There was one more attack from under the cloak and that was Luna stupefying Alecto while both were in the Ravenclaw common room.
Nothing Harry did under the cloak was to his selfish benefit, which was the issue with the cloak. He also didn't willy-nilly try to harm others while under the cloak. He used it to his advantage to save others.
Bob
""Attacking others" is a misuse of the Invisibility Cloak."
So says you.
His use of the cloak while attacking others was justified.
In the Gringotts break-in, he had to use the cloak so no one could see him or Griphook.
Nothing Harry did under the cloak was to his selfish benefit, which was the issue with the cloak. He also didn't willy-nilly try to harm others while under the cloak. He used it to his advantage to save others.
You also say he was irresponsible and immature by his uses of the cloak. I guess trying to stop the most dangerous dark wizard of all time and saving others is irresponsible?
shareYou also say he was irresponsible and immature by his uses of the cloak. I guess trying to stop the most dangerous dark wizard of all time and saving others is irresponsible?
"So says the book and the movie via the Tale of Two Brothers."
The tale of the Three Brothers is not valid for practical applications of the real life objects.
"I said it was a "misuse" meaning it wasn't the intended use of the device."
An unusual way to refer to the term misuse, which is thought of as using something incorrectly. The cloak was created to keep hidden. Harry used it as intended. What one does while using it is another issue altogether. A hammer isn't misused to save someone from a car, it is just an off-use.
"The Cloak was expressly created to dodge death."
That wasn't stated. In the Tale of the Three Brothers, it was given to the final brother and he used it to hide from death. In a sense, this was not the intended use of the cloak by Death so by your definition of misuse, the final brother misused the cloak while the first two brothers used their gifts properly.
However, when referring to the Ignotus Peverell, nothing was stated regarding his intent when he crated it. For all we know, he could have created it to better attack people. We can't rely on the Beedle story to determine who Ignotus was. His was a fairy tale based on the three items and likely the three Peverell brothers.
Bob
The tale of the Three Brothers is not valid for practical applications of the real life objects.
"I said it was a "misuse" meaning it wasn't the intended use of the device."
An unusual way to refer to the term misuse
which is thought of as using something incorrectly.
"The Cloak was expressly created to dodge death."
That wasn't stated. In the Tale of the Three Brothers, it was given to the final brother and he used it to hide from death.
In a sense, this was not the intended use of the cloak by Death so by your definition of misuse, the final brother misused the cloak while the first two brothers used their gifts properly.
However, when referring to the Ignotus Peverell, nothing was stated regarding his intent when he crated it.
For all we know, he could have created it to better attack people
We can't rely on the Beedle story to determine who Ignotus was.
"Can you explain why we get Tale Of Three Brothers rather than a history of the Peverell brothers? I don't think you can."
The story was to tell the fairy tale of the three objects and the legend of what the Deathly Hallows were and how they became named. However, the fairy tale was just that, a fairy tale. There is no reason to believe that the three Peverells bore any resemblance to the three brothers in the story, at least personality-wise.
"Using a tool correctly means using it for its intended purpose.:
Yes, but using it incorrectly is up for debate. I am not simply talking about morality but simple use. Using a show to kill a bug isn't necessarily a misuse of the shoe, just a different use for it. Silly Putty is being misused for what it originally was intended to be. Play Doh is being misused for its original purpose.
"Death had to tear his own cloak to provide it. The purpose of this tool was decided by the youngest brother, which is allegory for the purpose Ignotus Peverell created it for."
Death gave the third brother his Invisibility cloak. He did not tear his cloak. However, the tales were written down by Beedle in the fifteenth century while Ignotus lived in the thirteenth century. That is around 200 years of time separating the two characters. How did Beedle know who Ignotus was or his true character? Again, this was a fairy tale using the concept of three actual people he may have read about.
It is no difference than how some real life fairy tales were crated. Snow White and Cinderella were both based on real women but in no way do we attribute any descriptions of these characters on their real world counterparts.
"You are not sufficiently familiar with canon to be aware of it."
So provide for me where in the canon we get the intentions Ignotus Peverell had in creating the cloak. You stated before we don't get a history of the Peverells, so how can we know who he was? Based on a moral tale that was canonically written about 200 years after he was alive by a person who likely was never alive while Ignotus was?
"Ignotus was the most humble and wise of the Peverell Brothers"
Again, you can't point anywhere in canon to say that he was humble or wise (other than wise in the magical arts). The Tale of the Three Brothers was written as a morality tale, attributing the owner of the cloak as the most humble to teach a lesson to the audience. If you want to attribute the characteristics of the in-universe fictional third brother to Ignotus Peverell, fine, but it is not canonical.
Bob
"Can you explain why we get Tale Of Three Brothers rather than a history of the Peverell brothers? I don't think you can."
The story was to tell the fairy tale of the three objects and the legend of what the Deathly Hallows were and how they became named.
Harry Potter: "So it's true? All of it? The Peverell brothers —" Albus Dumbledore: "— were the three brothers of the tale. Oh yes, I think so. Whether they met Death on a lonely road… I think it more likely that the Peverell brothers were simply gifted, dangerous wizards who succeeded in creating those powerful objects. The story of them being Death's own Hallows seems to me the sort of legend that might have sprung up around such creations." — Harry Potter and Albus Dumbledore during the former's visit to Limbo[src]
"Using a tool correctly means using it for its intended purpose.:
Yes, but using it incorrectly is up for debate.
Using a show to kill a bug isn't necessarily a misuse of the shoe
Silly Putty is being misused for what it originally was intended to be. Play Doh is being misused for its original purpose.
It is no difference than how some real life fairy tales were crated. Snow White and Cinderella were both based on real women but in no way do we attribute any descriptions of these characters on their real world counterparts.
You stated before we don't get a history of the Peverells, so how can we know who he was?Inference from the fairy tale of course. Which you have already said you don't understand the purpose of.
The Tale of the Three Brothers was written as a morality tale, attributing the owner of the cloak as the most humble to teach a lesson to the audience.
"You cannot explain why Rowling chose to use a fairy tale to explain the Deathly Hallows rather than a straight narrative. "
And you can? The way I see it, which you are free to disagree with, since the objects were known as the Deathly Hallows, they were named after a character of Death, who was part of a fairy tale story. Note how they aren't called the Peverell Hallows. The Deathly Hallows were the fictional versions of the Peverell's objects.
"A shoe's manufacture is generally intended for foot covering."
And for protecting the foot. Therefore killing a bug while wearing a show is an alternate use of the shoe, but not a misuse. As for the invisibility cloak, it was created to hide oneself. Harry used it for this purpose and only this purpose. He didn't use it as a blanket or a bath towel. He used it for stealth.
"The more insightful reader realizes that the personalities of fairy tale characters matter more than magic."
Yes, the nature of the characters do matter more, but it still doesn't mean the character whom a fairy tale is based on bears the same characteristics as the character in a fairy tale. Fairy tales are not based on real life stories. The individuals are usually fictionalized characterizations of the people they are based on.
Now I am still awaiting Harry Potter canon regarding the intentions of the peverells in creating their objects and what theier personalities were. You cannot because the Peverell brothers were not part of any story, including the Tale of the Three Brothers. Why do you think the three brothers were never named?
Bob
He came back to life because he united the 3 and become master of death---then he broke the elder wand to reverse it.
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