Why did Hyde kiss Jekyll?


Or am I getting this confused with another Jekyll and Hyde remake?

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No, you're not getting confused, it was in this version! I thought that whole sequence was brilliant, but as to why Hyde kissed Jekyll; the most straightforward reason is probably that Hyde did it to mock Jekyll's revulsion towards him, and to make Jekyll uncomfortable - after all, in a way they're far more intimate than Jekyll could hope to be with another person.

But I've studied the original novel as part of my degree, and a number of critics are convinced that the novel contains a homosexual subtext; it is full of unmarried men, there are no major women characters, Hyde is described as "queer" (a word which had already acquired its present meaning when the novella was published in 1885) and this is also hinted at in the second volume of the graphic novel of "The League of Extraordinary Gentlemen." Possibly the script writer for this version was aware of this and the Jekyll/Hyde kiss was a reference.

If you want to read more about this possible interpretation, I recommend Elaine Showalter's "Sexual Anarchy" which has a brilliant analysis of Jekyll and Hyde, or indeed any biography of R L Stevenson. His life was almost as exciting as his stories.

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I haven't seen this movie but....how is it possible for Hyde to kiss Jekyll? Unless they've totally botched the book...

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That was a dream sequence.

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Same reason a dog licks its own genitals; because it can..

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If you were Dougray Scott, wouldn't you kiss yourself?

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