The Ending (making part 1 non-existant?)
maybe I saw it wrong..I only saw this one once and it was years ago..but...at the end there's a big war the guy turns into a demon or something and i think tries to kill his brother and then God comes and he goes down to hell. At the end of part one the same guy is in his mansion or whatever and is about to launch a war and the good guy (Gillen) is up there and gives him a code so he (the antichrist) will stop the attack. he then goes against his word and launches the attack anyway and right as he's counting off God comes and he goes down to hell and it's over.
1. In part 1 the war didn't even get to start, in part 2 the war was already going on.
2. the antichrist was obviously in different places at different times (in his mansion in part 1 and at megiddo in part 2)
other things i noticed..
1. part 2 naturally mentions nothing about the codes where in part 1 they say that's how he knew what to do in order to become the antichrist and rule the world.
2. absolutely no events from part 2 happen in part 1 or vice versa, despite them taking place at roughly the same time.
3. part 2 starts in 1960 when the antichrist is a child..meaning this whole movie takes place no later than about right now (not to say it couldn't but if it doesn't happen for at least 20 or 30 years then this movie will be outdated)
so..did i misunderstand the ending or am i right that part 2 just plane makes no freakin sense?