his real name


Ever wonder what the real name was for the man that man calls "Jesus"?

I assure you it was not "Jesus"

The letter J was not invented until around the time of Christopher Columbus!

Maybe you will get interested and decide to look it up. All you have to do is do a little research. It is there. And maybe you will find out why it was changed. :)

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Elisajones4,

As for the other two users that posted on here, I would guess that the first one is most likely either a member of a "Sacred Names" movement or some sort of conspiracy nut. From the posts I've seen from the second one, he or she seems to not have much discernment in where they get their information from, except for - oddly enough - not trusting the most accurate and reliable sources. Both of them will challenge me on what I've said about them, and I will refuse to take up those challenges, so I'll just save us all time and say don't bother. I'm sorry, they were just guesses, and if they were wrong or you feel that I was out of line, I apologize.
Now, on to the subject at hand. The Person that we in the English speaking world usually refer to as "Jesus" was a Jew living in First Century Israel. The language that He - and every other Jew living in First Century Israel - spoke was Aramaic, peppered with Hebraisms. That means that although the language was Aramaic, it borrowed certain words, terms, phrases, forms of pronunciation, etc., from Hebrew, the original language of the Jews, and their ancestors, the Hebrews/Israelites. Hebrew was still utilized for religious and official reasons as well, and all adult male Jews living in Israel were just as fluent in it as they were in Aramaic. Both Aramaic and Hebrew are Semitic languages and are derived from the same original language, and at the time employed nearly identical alphabets. Among the Hebraisms employed in the Aramaic of the Jews of First Century Israel were proper names - personal names, place names, etc., etc...
During the First Century, Israel was part of the Roman Empire, as was most of Europe, North Africa, and the Near & Middle East. We have touched on what language was employed in Israel, but Greek was the main language used throughout the rest of the Empire, and Latin was the main language used on the Italian Peninsula. Since Greek was the main language used throughout the Roman Empire at the time, the New Testament was was written entirely in Greek. It gives the name of the Person that we in the English speaking world usually refer to as "Jesus" as being "Iesous". As Latin became more common in Western Europe, especially as the liturgical language of the Christians in that part of the world, the Latin variation "Iesus" came into use. Latin did not employ a letter "J", but employed the same symbol for both the "I" and "J" sounds. The letter "J" first showed up in the Middle Ages (before the time of Columbus). This was the background of the name that Christians in Britain eventually rendered as "Jesus" (and we all know how it is pronounced). However, every language has come up with a different variation on the name.
But how do we know what he was originally called? "Iesous" is not a Greek name, but an attempt to give an idea of the sound of a Hebrew name for Greek speakers using the Greek alphabet. In Matthew 1:21, we read that the name was to be given to the newborn child because "He shall save His people from their sins." Later in the New Testament, we see that the New Testament writers refer to the Old Testament figure that we in the English speaking world commonly refer to as "Joshua" as "Iesous," in other words, "Jesus!" Greek translations of the Hebrew Scriptures (aka the Old Testament of the Bible), most notably the famous Septuagint, also render the name of "Joshua" as "Iesous". The actual Hebrew name that we render as "Joshua" is "Yehoshua," which can be translated as "YHWH Is Salvation," "YHWH Saves," etc., etc... Variations of the word "Deliverance" or "Delivers" can be substituted there as well. "YHWH" is, of course, the most Sacred of the Hebrew Names for God - the Name revealed to Moshe (Moses) at the Burning Bush. Look how that compares with Matthew 1:21! In addition to that, all of the ancient translations of the New Testament into Semitic languages such as Aramaic, Hebrew, and Arabic (as well as other sources) use the same name for "Jesus" that they use for "Joshua" in the Old Testament!
Joseph, His stepfather, would of course be the same Hebrew rendering as the Old Testament figure of the same name, which can be either "Yosef" or "Yehosef".
The name of His hometown, which we in the English speaking world commonly pronounce as "Nazareth" was pronounced by the Jews of First Century Israel more like "Natzeret".
In and around a person's hometown in First Century Israel, that person was referred to in reference to their father or husband, or in extremely rare cases, another more "famous" male relative besides their father or husband. That was their name. We see examples of this throughout the Gospels, including for Yehoshua, who was believed to be the son of Yosef/Yehosef. "Bar" and "Bin" were two words that were in use at the time to mean "son of" - the first one was Aramaic, the second one was Hebrew. So, in and around Natzeret, He would be called Yehoshua Bar Yosef, Yehoshua Bin Yosef, Yehoshua Bar Yehosef, or Yehoshua Bin Yehosef.
Outside the region of a person's hometown in First Century Israel, that person was referred to in reference to their hometown. The word "Min" was the word used here, which meant "of" or "from". So, outside of the area of Natzeret, He would be called Yehoshua Min Natzeret.
We even find examples of the two being combined, which is most likely the most formal form of a person's name, so it might be something like Yehoshua Ben Yehosef Min Natzeret.
His first Jewish followers believed Him to be the "Christ" or the "Messiah". These are both English adaptations of different forms of a title so loaded with meaning that it would take an entire book to get into it properly. We're not gonna do that. We'll just say that in their language, they would have called Him Yehoshua Ha Moshiyach after His Resurrection and Ascension.
The variation "Yeshua" that you commonly see and hear used as His "original" name is inaccurate. "Yeshua" is an Aramaic nickname, a shortening of Yehoshua that did not come about until after the New Testament was written. Jewish Rabbis at the time who were very Anti-Christian used it when they wrote slanderous propoganda against Yehoshua, making each letter in "Yeshua" stand for a word that made up a sentence that said nasty things about Yehoshua.
I hope that this helps everyone that has posted on or read this thread.

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elisajones4,

No, not Yeshua. Yehoshua. Re-read the post.
And according to the "Bible," Yehosef (the husband of Miryam, Yehoshua's Mother) was NOT Yehoshua's father. Yehoshua is the Son of YHWH (God). Miryam was a virgin when Yehoshua was conceived and born. Yehosef, being the husband of Yehoshua's Mother, would be the step/adoptive "father" of Yehoshua. He gave Yehoshua his name and claimed and raised Yehoshua as his own son.
Those who do not believe that Yehoshua is the Son of YHWH and that Miryam was a virgin when Yehoshua was conceived and born are divided over whether or not Yehosef was the father of Yehoshua.

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elisajones4,

This is a little bit off topic, but...

Since you have posted extensively on the boards for numerous movies on the Life of Christ, I thought that you had seen those movies. Most of them cover it. One of the basic tenants of the Christian faith is the belief that Jesus was conceived and born while His Mother, Mary, was still a virgin. This happened in fulfilment of a prophecy that Christians interpret to be a very specific prophecy concerning the conception and birth of the Messiah, although others interpret it differently.

If you have a Bible, you can read about this at Luke 1:26-37 and Matthew 1:18-25. If you do not have a Bible, please let me know.

If you do want to contact me any more and want to discuss this further, please feel free to send me a private message.

PS I don't mean to be a jerk, but I thought everyone knew this, including those that don't believe it, since it is one of the main elements of the traditional Christmas story that everyone in the Americas and Europe has heard at least once, and since the Mary in question is so often referred to as the Virgin Mary. Is it possible that you're just joking around?

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elisajones4,

Since this discussion is getting off topic and is only taking place between you and me, I'll continue it via private messages.

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[deleted]

No, Elise, GOD is his Father....Mary was a virgin supernaturally impregnated by the Holy Spirit....Why do people who have no interest in the Bible find these movies interesting? Just wondering...

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Elisa, I have a bit of information to contribute about the "virgin birth."

It is a well-known fact that the story of Jesus, his ministry, and his crucifixion were first recorded in the Gospel of Mark, with no record of his birth. The specific details of the nativity were added a few decades later, most notably in the Gospel of Luke.

In writing his account of Jesus' birth, the author of Luke alluded to well-known passages from Isaiah. (This happens, as cos-9 pointed out, in Luke 1:26-37). In these verses, we read Luke's effort to establish Jesus as the Messiah foreseen by the OT prophets. But Luke was no Hebrew scholar, and was in fact using a Greek translation of Isaiah. We know this because in Hebrew, the text of Isaiah 7:14 reads "The maiden [almah] shall conceive and bear a son..." (The Hebrew word "almah" just means a young woman and has no virginal connotation. Instead, the context of this passage is to indicate that the Messiah is to be a descendent of David.) But in the Greek translation Luke used, the word "almah" had been translated "parthenos," which means "virgin." So when he incorporated sections of Isaiah into the text of his gospel, he unwittingly included this mistranslation. From this simple mistranslation came the now well-known story of the virgin birth. (There are countless other examples of translation mishaps like this in the NT, and I could go on for hours.)

So yes, while the virgin birth is a common belief among many Christians (although certainly not all,) it is a misconception (no pun intended) arising from an ignorance of the Hebrew and Greek of the original Biblical texts. Unfortunately, many people who interpret and preach Christianity do not know how to critically read documents in their original languages. Some accidentally disseminate falsehoods out of ignorance, while a few others actually know the truth but dishonestly perpetuate doctrinal inaccuracies. (Since cos-9 is so knowledgeable about the etymology of Jesus' name, he probably knows this as well. I wonder which camp he falls into.)

I hope this helps!

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The "virgin" Mary?
Everybody knows that God came down from Heaven, took over the body of a smooth Jewish pimp/sheep herder and smoked that broad. aaaaaaaaaaall right.

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His name was (I sounding like a Y)Iashua in Hebrew. Which in translation, means Jesus in English. Y is a Hebrew J. Which is why Jehovah is pronounced Jeh. It's really spelled with an I in Hebrew.

"After all, I've tried for three years. Seems like ninety. Why then am I, scared to finish?"

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mjbrandstoettner,

This is the jerkiest post that I've ever made, but I just have to say that your post is idiotic.

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epothast1978,

Sorry that it's taken me nearly a year to actually come back to this thread and read your post. I'm extremely familiar with the issues that you've raised, but I feel that you've presented the information in a way that gives it an unfair slant.
One thing in particular that I would take issue with is your statement that it "is a well-known fact that the story of Jesus, his ministry, and his crucifixion were first recorded in the Gospel of Mark". This statement over-simplifies a very complex debate that is not nearly as settled as your statements regarding it would make it seem.
Also, many Hebrew scholars would conted that the word used in Isaiah did indeed have a cultural connotation indicating a virginal status of the young girl in question. Others would contend that the translators of the Septuagint (as well as Matthew) were knowledgeable enough about the languages that they were working with to render it accurately. And don't forget, those translators didn't have a Christian theological agenda to further.
Finally, I personally know plenty of people who are scholars in both Hebrew and Greek (they even have "Dr." in front of their names!) who are honest people who hold to the doctrine of the Virgin Birth. I too believe that Mary, the Mother of Jesus, was a Virgin until after the birth of Jesus. Make of that what you will...

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Why the pointless discussion? Just go straight to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus and get all the info.

DVM LOQVIMVR FVGERIT INVIDA AETAS
CARPE DIEM QVAM MINIMVM CREDVLA POSTERO.

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Pointless discussions are what make life worth living. That and Watney's Red Barrel.

Nothing exists more beautifully than nothing.

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oy vey!

wikipedia simply amazes me.


“The most beautiful thing in the world is, of course, the world itself.”-Wallace Stevens

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Jesus is a paraphrase of the the Greek Ioseus, which in turn was a Greek translation of Yeshua or Joshua. It was a fairly common name among the Hebrews, Joshua son of Nun being one of the great heroes of the Bible.

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It was Moses who changed Joshua name out of Hoshea but that very letter H (Heta) is Greek and the name sounds starting with E. You're not gonna understand anything if before you can't answer why names like ISrael or ISaiah sound like EEs while the Egyptian name ISis sounds like AYs. It's a Jewish secret. As a matter of fact you should've been aware Jews CHANGED the names of the ones who were seen as blasphemers or traitors like "Jesus" or "Judas". Jesus is just a wrong adaptation from Greek IESOYS and Latin IESVS but there was no "E" at all in his name and it's false to believe Hebrew didn't have vowels, people ignore about Paleo-Hebrew or Phoenician alphabet and knowing this they will realize our very letters and Greek alphabet imported from them. Jews just lied to hide the truth and for the same reason they even hide a simple vowel like "O" from the mere title "god" translated to pagan languages, they write "g*d" going beyond original Moses' law!
Jesus name didn't have that E at all nor H. Ypsilon "Y' was a Greek letter and Jews sometimes use "yod" or "iod" letter. J was invented 1600 years after Christ in Middle Ages and set after the "I' in the alphabet, I was called "iota" and until now J is called "jota" in Spanish and Portuguese.
That letter V could have 2 sounds in Latin, it was like a U when in the middle of 2 consonants like in "PilatVs" (PilatUs) but is not the case in Christ name. His name changed is like remembered in apocrypha scrolls and even in Gaelic islands : Isa or Issa. Yet that "I" sounds not like its name AY but as in interesting-sit-lick-sin not like in wine-mine-like. Isa is the short way of a name that had a V , Isva. Yet the Hebrew grammar allows the use of the vowel of the name of the consonat S (sin), hence ISVA can be changed into ISIVA which only in English the transliterated sound is like EE-SEE-VA. In Arab which is linked to Aramean and Hebrew and didn't change cos it was not forgotten or altered on purpose, they also remember Isa (EE-SA sound). That Yehoshua or Yoshua and Yeshua are simple lies.

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