MovieChat Forums > Ever After (1998) Discussion > Would the marriage have actually been po...

Would the marriage have actually been possible?


Would Henry really have been able to marry a commoner? Especially one who was a "servant"?
I can't see his Father, nor the Kingdom taking that one well...

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What's the kingdom going to do? And his father said he could marry before the ball. It's not like someone who wasn't noble has married royalty before.

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Consider the daffodil. And while you're doing that I'll be over here looking through your stuff.

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I've been wondering this for a while now. Was she actually a servant, or did Rodmilla just make her one? What were the "rules" back then with families and step children? I don't think her father was a noble man, but based on the manor he owned he wasn't poor either. Did he marry up with Rodmillia? I've seen this movie so many times, but there is so much information missing for me.

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I always wondered, in general about the Cinderella story, how her stepmother was able to just turn her into a servant in her own home. I remember in the 2015 Cinderella, there was a deleted scene that pointed out how she simply became a "dependent" because she was technically an orphan after her father died, with no blood relatives. So I guess at that time, she was basically at her stepmother's mercy. To the cruel stepmother, the "merciful" thing to do was allow her to stay but force her to be a servant.

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Danielle's father was landed gentry, probably a wealthy merchant who owned property and a manor house ( near the palace to boot) and would have been a courtier if he had not spent so much time away from home. Danielle's mother may not have had a title but judging by her wedding attire, she may have also come from a good family. Danielle would most likely have been presented at court when she came of age.

Her father's death and Rodmilla's hatred of her because of her father's dying words, prevented the natural course of things and since Danielle was so young and had no other family, Rodmilla raised her with low self-esteem, teaching her to be grateful for even having a roof over her head and turning her into a servant to replace all of those she had sold to pay her debts. Danielle put up with it because she loved her home and Maurice, Louise, and Paulette and where else could she go that she would not have been someone else's servant (or worse)?

Rodmilla had a title, a haughty demeanor, and probably little else, and two daughters to raise. We saw how she used her wiles on the page and she probably used the same tactics on Auguste, a lonely widower with a motherless child. He probably thought that "Baroness" Rodmilla was "a catch" and vice versa. They could not have known each other long and he was only home for two weeks after he came home with the instant family so he basically married a conniving stranger and Danielle suffered for it.





Audiences don't know somebody sits down and writes a picture, they think the actors make it up as they go along.

-Sunset Blvd.

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I thought that Danielle's mother was Comtesse Nicole de Lancret (not sure of spelling.) Does that make her noble in some way?

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Countess? Yes. If memory serves, that is the wife of an Earl. Not sure how Auguste reeled in two noble ladies, let alone one.

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Appeasement is hoping the bear eats you last.

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Her mother was not a Countess. Danielle just added the title so she wouldn't get in trouble for talking to the prince like she did. Remember, after she and Marguerite lunched with the Queen, the Baroness tells Danielle something along the lines of "turning your mother into a Countess. That's absurd. Almost as absurd as a prince falling for a servant that sleeps with the pigs".

Danielle's father was a wealthy merchant and my guess is that Danielle's mother came from the same class, judging by Danielle's dowry.

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I guess that is why its called a fairy tale.

It's that man again!!

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I'm sure it was rare, but common enough to happen in literature. Juliet comes from a family of wealthy commoners, yet she is set to marry Count Paris.

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Appeasement is hoping the bear eats you last.

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IIRC, until relatively recently a male Royal could wed anyone below his station. However, a female royal could not marry below hers. Which means that Auguste could not marry the Baroness unless he was at least a Count.

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If the King approved the marriage, then it would be the equivalent of a Royal Decree.

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Well that would have been a big "if"! Can you imagine the meeting of the royal advisers, crying because the idiot prince wants to pick a future queen on the basis of a fucking shoe!

But the short answer is: If Cinderella's not-ugly stepsister was accepted at court in spite of her comparative poverty considered a potential royal bride, then Danielle would be considered just as eligible by birth.

Edit: Possibly more eligible, depending on what titles their respective fathers held or how much money or influence they'd had. As Danielle was the only surviving child of her father, she should have been his sole heiress under normal circumstances, although as her stepmother pissed away the family money that didn't matter much. And if he was a baron she'd have been entitled to call herself "baroness", so the royal family could have put a brave face on the marriage and said the prince had married a French noblewoman... and hushed up the years she spent doing servant's work.

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