MovieChat Forums > Warlock: The Armageddon (1993) Discussion > Question about the Warlock's method (spo...

Question about the Warlock's method (spoilers)


Specifically, I'm wondering about when he gets the one stone from the older man. A little bit after that, Kenny shows up and impales the man, to which the Warlock replies, "You missed me." When Kenny says tells him he didn't, the Warlock blows up the store and Kenny then ends up impaled in the street.

ANYWAY! My question is this: how does cutting off the man's arm/hand and taking the stone from it qualify as "free will"? I thought that the Warlock had made a point of saying earlier in the film that people had to give the stones to him of their own free will. If he just cut off the man's hand and took it, how could that qualify?




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My guess is that since he's the villain, he breaks his own rules.

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The thing with Franks isn't the only time the "rule" is ignored. In the very beginning he aquires the Birth stone from his "mother" by taking it after she is dead no free will necessary.

I guess the logic with the old man was if he wasn't gonna hand it over cut off the arm making it no longer his possession to give problem solved lol.

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