MovieChat Forums > The Stepfather (1987) Discussion > Ending inconsistency (spoiler)

Ending inconsistency (spoiler)

posted 17 years ago by CaeserOct0
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I know that in the 2nd one, Jerry is somehow in an insane asylum. However, in the end of this first one, Jerry seems like he's going to die - after all, he's clearly stabbed near or possibly even in the heart (a fairly fatal attack).

How is this possible? Does the 2nd one explain this?

Also, the family at the end seems really happy and safe but could they realistically be knowing he's alive (and clearly he escapes as in the 2nd one)? Also, why wouldn't they take the opportunity to kill him?

[–] dropofahat 17 years ago

As far as horror movies go (where bad guys are routinely resurrected, usually in outrageously logic-defying ways - OR just by ignoring previous movies altogether) this one is not so bad, ending-inconsistency-wise.

Sure, Jerry's wounds looked bad, but the old "if it was one inch to the left, he would be dead" DOES happen in real life. People have surived worse wounds than that.

And as for why the wife & daughter didn't kill him where he lay - they're not murderers, he is. They could be put on trial for killing him once he's incapacitated. (Okay, probably not in a horror movie, but you know what I mean.)

And they didn't seem particularly "happy" in the end, just relieved that he's gone.

All in all, it doesn't require much suspension of disbelief to accept that he's alive for the sequel.

By the way, Terry O'Quinn is the man, he's great in both movies...