MovieChat Forums > Taste the Blood of Dracula (1970) Discussion > Why does Dracula desire revenge??

Why does Dracula desire revenge??


Big major plot hole that has always bothered me in this one. So Dracula cannot be revived without the death of his servant. So once he is reborn via his servant's demise, he crows: "THEY HAVE DETROYED MY SERVANT - THEY WILL BE DESTROYED!" What, didn't Dracula want to be revived?

It also makes no sense that Dracula would care very much for this insignificant servant. But even if Dracula DID wish to get revenge on the fathers who did this, why go through such a complicated means of getting back at them?

I usually don't quibble with plot problems in movies, but this one has always stuck with me. But this movie's got a great atmosphere and look, anyway.

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Your criticism is fair. What actually happened is that Christopher Lee had tired of playing Dracula in the Hammer films, so the studio proceeded to make the movie without him.

The film was to center on Lord Courtly as played by Ralph Bates, whom Hammer viewed as an up and comer. In the original plot, Courtly was to rise as a vampire after being murdered by the hypocritical businessmen. Once Christopher Lee relented -- after being emotionally blackmailed by Hammer president James Carreras -- the script was hastily rewritten to fit Count Dracula in.

As such, some of the motivations make little sense -- and the Count has precious little to do.

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Yes, I know of Lee and all the history with the movie originally not having Dracula in it. Just saying it still doesn't make sense in the final product, as it plays out.

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[deleted]

Dracula only seeks revenge against the three hedonist business men; they killed his "servant" Courtly, who was the one, true believer and servant of Dracula. He brought Dracula back; and, began the tranformation; but, the three men killed him with their canes, so Dracula is getting his revenge ONLY against them.

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Why does Dracula want revenge? There are a myriad of reasons. He's a monstrous person, existing on violence, fear, and dread (as Van Helsing puts it in "The Satanic Rites of Dracula"). Any reason he can think of to inflict violence on others, he'll act on.

I think Dracula's plan wasn't supposed to be Lord Courtley who drank the blood to resurrect him. It was supposed to be one of the three men and Courtley would continue to serve him once he was back. But they refused to go through with the ritual and Courtley put his money where his mouth was, so to speak.

Also, keep in mind, Dracula is an aristocrat. As such, he thinks of people who serve him as his property. "My" servant. In Dracula's mind, when they killed (or caused the death of) Lord Courtley, those men sinned against him. Basically, if anyone's going to be killing Dracula's servants, it's going to be Dracula and Dracula alone. And for this egregious transgression against him, those men had to pay.

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Very well said, that's probably as plausible as any explanation we're ever gonna get.

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I think a plot hole is a more plausible explanation

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Well, then you're not thinking.

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[deleted]

Agreed, its a plot hole

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Watched it last night and the OP's point, I thought to myself.

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