MovieChat Forums > Doctor Zhivago (1965) Discussion > Why did victor call Lara a slut.

Why did victor call Lara a slut.


She was a virgin prior to him rapping her.

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Lara had been his mistress since the night he took her to the fancy restaurant. He began to treat her badly but she couldn't leave him.

"I'm just as sentimental as the next fella when it comes to old times.....old times".

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Exactly. And he didn't rape her. Or "rap" her.

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The relationship of Lara and Komorovsky reminds me of the similar situation in "Tess of the D'Urbervilles." Wherein Tess is roughly seduced by suave powerful Alec and keeps giving in to him (referred to as "confused surrender"), especially after her rejection (and subsequent descent into abject poverty) by her beloved "high-minded" (but hypocritical) spouse Angel.

Of course, these fictional characters are NOT sluts; they would have given up the other affairs if allowed to stay with their "true loves." In real life, however, probably they would have been moving from man to man and having kids with them constantly.

"Shake me up, Judy!"

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"[Rough seduction]" my ass. How insulting that you choose this phrase that downplays and even romanticizes it what was, ultimately, sexual assault, no matter how "[seductive]" it looked. FYI, this is often a tried and effective tactic that rapists (especially a trusted associate) often uses in order to take advantage, victim-blame, and deceive everyone into thinking there was consent, in order to cast the blame off themselves. It's very unfortunate you fell for that trap.

I hope you have educated yourself on what consent is since you made your post. Otherwise, you have some serious education and reflection to do!

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He did "rape" her. Just because they had sex before doesn't mean that it will always be consensual. You have some serious educating to do for yourself on what consent is and how it works.

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