Did the term "Arab" exist in the first century?
when Sheik Ilderim visited Messala to place a wager on the race, Messala gave him 4 to 1 odds and said, "4 to 1 the difference between a roman and a jew", to which a roman soldier continues, "or an arab".
As I understand it, the "arab" identity is closely related to the islamic religion which began in the 7th century. in the first century the religion was non-existent as was the arabic language. Was this an error of the script or was the word "arab" used back then?