Did this movie make sense?
As is noted in the trivia, the original play on which this film was based was very heavily steeped in 1930s American east coast Jewish culture. The camp in which it takes place seems to be one of the Borscht Belt resorts later depicted more accurately in A Walk on the Moon and Dirty Dancing, though the one in this movie seems to be an economy version for young singles. With all the cabin sharing, it seems more like a kid's camp than a resort. I assume such places did exist, but when the the movie was made, and the studio (forgive me) 'Aryanized' the story for mainstream 1930s American audiences, weren't they opening the story up to some puzzling questions? Would a place like this, basically a co-ed kid's camp for adults, have existed then, for gentiles? Regular resorts largely discriminated against Jewish people then, but these resorts also existed because presumably Jewish people would enjoy a Jewish vacation, thus they continued to exist even after such discrimination was outlawed. Now, if not for the Jewish element, why is the rich boy, played by Lee Bowman, who can afford a cabin to himself, even here? Why wouldn't he go to a more luxurious resort? In the play the answer is obvious; he's a young single Jewish man seeking to meet Jewish girls but in this movie he simply becomes a rich boy who enjoys mixing with poor girls.
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